Does Israel has the right to defend itself?

Since this whole thing started western media has been enforcing the idea that Israel has every right to defend itself, and I haven't seen much challenge in that concept, I believe most of the public figures or speakers are afraid to a degree of the backlash if they go full on with their opinions.

Now the answer can be according to your own opinion, or according to international low, or just your belief.

But what do y'all think, and whatever your answer is can you mention the reasoning behind it?

I would be interested too if you've seen a public figure that challenged this thought and said no, Israel is not entitled to the right of defending itself for example

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Edit: Here's my point of view and why I voted no

Under international law, Israel has no right to defend itself in occupied territory.

You might argue that Gaza isn't or wasn't occupied, but it is. Since 1967, Israel has violated international law with its illegal occupation of the Gaza Strip, West Bank, and East Jerusalem. These actions have been condemned by the United Nations and the International Court of Justice, in accordance with United Nations Security Council Resolution 242 and United Nations General Assembly Resolution 181, which call on Israel to vacate these territories and end its illegal blockade of the Gaza Strip.

According to the Geneva Conventions of 1949, established during the Nuremberg Trials after World War II, as a belligerent occupier, Israel forfeits all rights to the occupied territories and cannot legally retaliate against armed resistance groups fighting for their emancipation.

I'll leave this link too which in it Francesca Albanese explains why Israel doesn't have the right to claim self defense under international law

https://twitter.com/ajitxsingh/status/1724488544335392943?s=19

Edit 2:

Seems like some people are confused with what I mean with Israel's right to defend itself

Israel's government has an obligation to defend it's citizens against any attack, that's not what I meant tho

What I meant with my question is Israel using article 51 to attack Gaza as a (response) and whether or not it is considered Israel's right to use that article giving that it is the occupier

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